Hiya all, just wondering if anyone who is up on employment law can have a look at my current situation and let me know if what my employer is trying to do is legal.
Basically, I worked full time (six days a week) for just under two years, before I went down to four days a week in August last year. This was agreed with them, and they were fully aware about three months prior that I would be reducing my hours and at the time I told them if this would be an issue then I could look for work elsewhere. They told me that this was fine, and as long as I did a minimum of three days they would be happy.
All was fine up until just before Christmas, when they started to offer me wage increases/bonuses to go back to six days a week. I politely declined the offer, and since then it seems like their attitude towards me has done a complete 180.
My boss told me in January that he was going to hand me my month's notice, but changed his mind in the hope that "I'll change mine at some point and go back to full time". When I asked what reason they would give to dismiss me, he said that they rely on me to be there six days a week, and it's inconvienient to them for me not to be (which is nonsense, there are seven us in my department, all equally able to do the same job I do).
More recently I took two days off ill with a stomach bug, and having seen the doctor I could only get a self cert sick note as I wasn't off for more than five working days. My work have now told me that this is unacceptable, and have advised that if I won't provide a full doctor's note this is grounds to fire me. I was off ill also with a chest infection in December for a week, but this was covered by a doctor's note and prior to that I hadn't had any absences in a long while, so they couldn't really argue my attendance is an issue.
I don't believe they can do this, and to be honest I think they're just looking for a way to get rid. I'm just wondering though whether they would have a leg to stand on, whether this would class as unfair dismissal but also is this classed as discrimination as I work less hours than others in my department? As others in my department have recently had time off ill and I know for a fact that they have not been asked to produce a full doctor's note as I have.
Any advice would be greatly appreciated, so thanks in advance!